In spanish when it comes to regular and irregular past participle verbs, to the endings change for gender?

I learned that the past participle of to freir (to fry) is frito (fried). But then I remembered how ';papas fritas'; means ';french fries'; (or ';fried potatoes).



Now i've always thought of verbs as words whose spellings aren't affected by the gender of the nouns around them, but i couldn't help but notice that ';papas'; is a feminine word. everywhere I look the word ';frito'; (fried) has an ';o'; at the end, but not when you're talking about ';papas fritas.';



SO my question is, are past participle conjugated verbs affected by the gender of the nouns around them? If so, is this true for all verbs in the past participle, or for just the irrgeular ones?In spanish when it comes to regular and irregular past participle verbs, to the endings change for gender?
Yes in spanish, the verbs in past participle are afected by the gender if they are used to design some objet or people or anything. By example:



Verb: LEER, past participle: LE脥DO but if I talk about a magazine (revista, femenino) the O at the end of le铆dO changes to A: La revista le铆dA por m铆 (the magazine which I read)



Verb: FREIR, past participle FRITO changes to FRITA/S if we are talking about a femenine subjet like PAPAS: papas fritAS



There is the same with every spanish verbs.In spanish when it comes to regular and irregular past participle verbs, to the endings change for gender?
They have to agree with gender and number...most of them. As in English, I think there are a few exceptions. Feminine words have to end in 'a', so the verb also has to end in 'a'. (and vice versa)